Jews and Liber AL
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Why are Jews left out of the verbal pogrom beginning in III:50?
I expect something like, "and I stomp on your yarmulke!" or "I crush the laws of Moshe!" but no, nothing. Why is that? Is Bahlasti ompehda perhaps some lost Jew lingo and he's spitting on their creeds? Is it possible The speaker doesn't have a bone to pick w/ Judaism?
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@Foolster said
"Why are Jews left out of the verbal pogrom beginning in III:50?
I expect something like, "and I stomp on your yarmulke!" or "I crush the laws of Moshe!" but no, nothing. Why is that? Is Bahlasti ompehda perhaps some lost Jew lingo and he's spitting on their creeds? Is it possible The speaker doesn't have a bone to pick w/ Judaism?"
According to Crowley in The Law is for All, perhaps "Din" refers to the Jews. Remember, Crowley did not actually claim to write Liber AL, and he too had that question of yours.
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Never really thought about it, but perhaps the Book is aiming for the maximum % of the human population to take heed at that juncture and Judaism has historically been a smaller group than Christianity, Islam, Buddhism etc. There's countless other religions that could have been put in there as well
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Technically Judaism is from the aeon of Isis, despite YHVH being presented as a single Male God, really they have a sort of poly-theism and in Judaism God is more like the natural forces, where as in the Osiris aeon God is abstracted away from the world into an non-physical heaven.
Judaism does not need to be attacked by Horus because Christianity had already displaced Judaism.
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@Froclown said
"Technically Judaism is from the aeon of Isis, despite YHVH being presented as a single Male God, really they have a sort of poly-theism and in Judaism God is more like the natural forces, where as in the Osiris aeon God is abstracted away from the world into an non-physical heaven. "
I mostly agree with you on this one. Original Judaism was from the Aeon of Isis. Elohim in Genesis Chapter 1 is the creative female. Shekinah had a significant, up-front presence in the early forms (She being the one who was to appear in the Holy of Holies of both the tabernacle and the temple). The older matrilinear inheritance is still preserved nominally: In the 21st Century one is properly a Jew only if one's mother is a Jew.
But in Osirian times this changed. YHVH became top banana, Elohim's feminine nature was forgotten (by all except the esoterically-minded who gave birth to Kabbalah after the diasporas to Europe).
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There are things about "Thelema" that remind me of Judaism and this interests me. There are things about it that remind me of other religions too, but I'll just mention what I've noticed.
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Abramelin oil: Similar to the Holy Anointing Oil which the Kohen ha-Gadol would anoint himself with and also consecrate articles of the tabernacle. This is interesting symbolically from a judaic perspective, as it infers the practitioner is a High Priest.
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Cakes of light reminiscent of showbread. Granted, Babylonian and Assyrian's practiced something similar with holy bread placed before images of their gods.
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Continuity factor: A bit of the new anointing oil was added to the old, thus continuing the original as a way of connecting back through time. Also, the red heifers ashes were added to the old heifers as a form of continuity. I know its not explicitly stated in Liber AL, but I am aware some thelemites burn cakes of light as incense,and save the ashes for future batches, which to me represents a "continuity factor". Maybe a stretch.
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Ra Hoor Khut reminds me of YHWH. Anyone else?
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Usage of hebrew gematria.
I'm not hung up on this, and am aware that Ancient Judaism is a syncretism, but wondered if anyone else had thought about it.
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The Jews have the half... right there in the Book of the Law...
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They have half the concept of nothingness down (Ain).
Maybe Thelemites are Jews 2.0, the new "chosen ones"!?
AL I,31: "For these fools of men and their woes care not thou at all! They feel little; what is, is balanced by weak joys; but ye are my chosen ones."
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@Tone said
"Ra-Hoor-Khuit doesn't have a problem with the Jews because they put Jesus on the Cross."
Well, according to all the original texts that mention Jesus... it was the Romans that did that...
(The later gospels, like John, make the Jews out to be increasingly virulent in demanding that the Romans do it. However, when you consider that (a) the Romans were ruling Jerusalem, and deciding themselves which Jews they would torture and execute on a given day, and (b) that the later gospels were written by Christians anxious to avoid the disfavor of said cruel Romans... you can see that the perennial charge against the Jews of killing Jesus doesn't make any sense.)
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@Foolster said
"Why are Jews left out of the verbal pogrom beginning in III:50?
I expect something like, "and I stomp on your yarmulke!" or "I crush the laws of Moshe!" but no, nothing. Why is that? Is Bahlasti ompehda perhaps some lost Jew lingo and he's spitting on their creeds? Is it possible The speaker doesn't have a bone to pick w/ Judaism?"
Bahlasti Ompehda is a word of power used to banish. If your magickal voice is trained and you pronounce the word corectly while making the gesture, Bahlasti Ompehda becomes equal to a nuclear blast on the astral plane;)